Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Of the different public cloud WAN options, which have quality of service capabilities to ensure end-to-end application requirements? (Choose three) A. Internet B. Intercloud exchange C. Ethernet WAN D. MPLS VPN E. Internet VPN You have a Class A network with a /27 subnet mask. How many hosts can be addressed in that network? A. 62 B. 6 C. 2 D. 30 E. 14 F. 126 A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port? A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port. B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port. C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex. D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex. E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-1-internetworking/ethernet-networking.html Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool? A. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts B. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B C. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B D. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B You need to apply an access-list to the vty lines on your router so that you can control which users can make telnet and ssh connections to the device. Which command in line vty configuration mode will apply the access-list to the vty lines? A. ip access-group access-list-number out B. access-class access-list-number out C. access-class access-list-number in D. ip access-group access-list-number in E. access-list access-list-number in F. ip access-list access-list-number in G. access-list access-list-number out Which of these are QoS requirements when designing a Cisco voice network? (Choose two) A. Jitter < 30 ms B. Loss < 1% C. One-way delay < 200 ms D. Jitter < 50 ms E. Loss < 2% F. Round-trip delay < 200 ms What is the purpose of the “service password-encryption“ command? A. It encrypts all passwords on your router. B. It encrypts the line console password only. C. It encrypts the vty password only. D. It is not a valid cisco command Which of the following is valid for Single-area OSPF design type? (Choose two) A. Using summarization results in smaller routing tables B. A better solution for efficient routing C. Every router is required to process many link-state advertisements (LSAs) D. Larger routing tables are required https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/multiarea-ospf-planning.html Which of the following are required attributes of a REST-based API? (Choose two) A. Uses HTTP B. Objects noted as to whether they can be cached C. Classful operation D. Client/server architecture What information is contained within a “hello“ packet? (Choose three) A. Path vector B. Area ID C. Router ID D. Distance metric E. Topology map F. Hello interval https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/an-overview-of-ospf/ospf-neighbor-adjacencies.html Which features make IPv6 an improvement over IPv4 addressing? (Choose two) A. Uses Time to Live, or TTL, values in the header B. Security and mobility build into the standard C. Larger address space D. Offers approximately 4.3 billion addresses https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/introducing-ipv6/the-ipv6-address.html You have an address of 172.16.142.10/21. What are the network ID, directed broadcast, first host, and the last host? A. The network ID is 172.16.140.0, the directed broadcast is 172.16.148.255, the first host is 172.16.140.1, and the last host is 172.16.148.254 B. The network ID is 172.16.96.0, the directed broadcast is 172.16.168.255, the first host is 172.16.96.1, and the last host is 172.16.168.254 C. The network ID is 172.16.128.0, the directed broadcast is 172.16.163.255, the first host is 172.16.128.1, and the last host is 172.16.163.254 D. The network ID is 172.16.136.0, the directed broadcast is 172.16.143.255, the first host is 172.16.136.1, and the last host is 172.16.143.254 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/network-addressing-scheme.html Identify the statements that describe how ACLs function? (Choose two) A. They use top-down processing B. They always prevent users outside a network from gaining access C. A match results in immediate execution D. The end of the ACL has an implicit allow any https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/understanding-acls.html You have configured one side of your EtherChannel as passive. What mode should you use on the other side? A. Desirable B. On C. Auto D. Active __________ means that the QoS tool changes one or more header fields, setting a value in the header. A. Marking B. Classifying C. Insertion D. Qualifying In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP It is typical for server processors to utilize a technique that allows each physical processing core to be split into a number of virtual cores; this is commonly referred to as __________. A. processor virtualization B. multi-threading C. virtual processing D. processor switching Which method of assigning IPv6 addresses enables plug-and-play networking of devices to help reduce administration overhead? A. DHCP for IPv6 B. Stateless autoconfiguration C. Static assigning using an EUI-64 interface ID D. Static assignment using a manual interface ID Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing You can use the Cisco IOS ”copy” command to move configurations from one component or device to another. Which of the following commands will copy a file from the TFTP server and will download it to the RAM? A. erase startup-config B. copy tftp running-config C. copy running-config tftp D. copy running-config startup-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/network-environment-management/managing-devices.html How can be secured a console access to a network device? A. Encrypt the console password B. Define RSA keys to be used in authentication C. Generate a certificate key https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/cisco-router-security.html Refer to the diagram. What is the official name of the network (Network A) that is broadcast by an AP? A. SSID B. BSS C. ESS D. SRDID In Software-Defined Access (SDA), which of the answers are part of the overlay data plane? A. LISP B. GRE C. OSPF D. VXLAN How can you solve congestion issues from multiple links aggregating on a switch without scaling issues? A. Increase the uplink speed B. Decrease the uplink speed C. Enable loop-prevention mechanisms D. Bundle multiple links together with EtherChannel Which command will take the static default route and inject it in the OSPFv3 database? A. default-route static B. ipv6 router ospf 5 C. default-route ipv6 D. default-information originate When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level Per the command output, with how many routers is router R9 full adjacent over its Gi0/0 interface? A. 7 B. 10 C. 5 D. 2 Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem? A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs. B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN. C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk. D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches. E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches. If the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, what is the wildcard mask? A. 0.0.0.0 B. 0.0.0.255 C. 0.0.0.254 D. 255.255.255.0 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/acl-wildcard-masking.html enable secret [password] is hashed using the _______ algorithm. A. MD5 B. AH C. PSK D. ESP E. WPA2 Which microcode is used to test the basic functionality of router hardware and determine which components are present? A. bootstrap B. ROM monitor C. ROM D. POST E. RAM F. NVRAM A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller? A. A Northbound Interface B. A Southbound Interface C. Data plane functions D. Control plane functions What commands would you need to configure to enable DHCP Snooping so that PC4 couldn’t become a rogue DHCP server? A. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/12, ip dhcp snooping trust B. Configure the following on SW 1: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust C. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 10, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust D. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust E. Configure the following on SW 2: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/12, ip dhcp snooping trust F. Configure the following on SW 1: ip dhcp snooping, ip dhcp snooping vlan 20, int gi0/24, ip dhcp snooping trust Identify the characteristics of layer 3 addressing. (Choose two) A. The TCP/IP protocol stack uses IP B. Ethernet uses Media Access Control, or MAC, addresses C. Layer 3 addresses are assigned to network devices and hosts that provide layer 3 functions D. Network devices are used to maintain the routing table E. Unique Media Access Control, or MAC, addresses are assigned to each PC and each router interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/building-a-network/tcpip-internet-layer.html What options are required criteria for a service to be a cloud service? (Choose two) A. Broad network access B. Resource pooling C. Agile network access D. Proactive service Four OSPF routers connect to the same LAN. In a new election after all routers have been rebooted, which router wins the DR election? A. R4, router-id 4.4.4.4, priority 1 B. R3, router-id 3.3.3.3, priority 2 C. R1, router-id 1.1.1.1, priority 4 D. R2, router-id 2.2.2.2, priority 3 What happens if there are no boot system commands in the configuration? A. The router attempts to boot from a network TFTP server B. The router defaults to loading and running the first valid Cisco IOS image in the Flash memory C. The router loads the ROM monitor D. The router parses the startup configuration file in NVRAM https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/network-management/router-power-on-boot-sequence-config-register.html Which of the following OSPF packet types describes the network routes of each neighbor? A. link-state acknowledgement, or LSAck B. link-state update, or LSU C. link-state request, or LSR D. database description package, or DBD https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/an-overview-of-ospf/link-state-databases.html Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes? A. 10.0.0.0 /21 B. 10.0.0.0 /22 C. 10.0.0.0 /23 D. 10.0.0.0 /24 Robust wireless encryption is based on which of the following algorithms? A. WEP B. AES C. DES D. IPsec Identify the guidelines for duplex configuration. A. The distance and hop count on links between networking devices and critically connected end points should be manually set. B. Half-duplex on both ends performs worse than a duplex mismatch. C. Point-to-point Ethernet links should always run in half-duplex mode. D. Autonegotiation of speed and duplex is recommended on ports connected to noncritical end points. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/physical-connectivity.html Which IOS command always displays OSPF hello timer settings? A. show ip protocols B. show ip route C. show ip ospf interface D. show ip ospf neighbor E. debug ip ospf events Why are WANs needed? (Choose two) A. To increase the available bandwidth of the network B. To facilitate communication between regional offices C. To help organizations share information whith each other D. To secure file transfers more effectively https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/wan-technologies/internet-connection.html Which state of the default STP configuration allows ports to listen for BPDUs but not send any? A. Listening B. Learning C. Blocking D. Forwarding Devices using a wireless LAN must operate in which one of the following modes? A. Round-robin access B. Half duplex C. Full duplex D. None of these answers What is the purpose of subnetting? A. To translate an IPv4 address into an IPv6 address B. To take multiple networks and combine them into a single larger network C. To take a Class A network and turn it into a Class B or Class C network D. To translate a public IPv4 address into a private IPv4 address E. To take a single network and divide it into multiple smaller networks Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane model? A. Cisco Open SDN Controller B. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) C. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) D. None of these controllers uses a mostly centralized control plane. In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? A. The address of the attacker B. The address of the reflector C. The address of the victim D. The address of the router What are the best practices to follow when disabling unused services? (Choose two) A. Disable the Cisco Discovery Protocol on interfaces where a service may represent a risk B. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol SSL, or HTTPS, service must be disabled on the router C. Use the AutoSecure function to disable Telnet D. Finger, identification, TCP, and User Datagram Protocol, or UDP, small servers should be disabled on all routers and switches https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/switch-security.html Which of the following identifications can be used with Standard Numbered ACL? (Choose two) A. Can use 88 as identification B. Can use 2467 with as identification C. Can use filter2 as identification D. Can use 1399 as identification E. Can use filter4 as identification https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/acls-and-nat/type-of-acls.html Which protocol number represents ICMPv6? A. 89 B. 88 C. 17 D. 1 E. 58 F. 6 Which application(s) would Jitter and Delay not be a concern for the users experience? A. Online Gaming. B. VoIP. C. Web browsers. D. videoconferencing. Which of the following commands will display one line of information per port channel? A. show etherchannel summary B. show interface port-channel C. show etherchannel port-channel https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/etherchannel-and-l3-redundancy/configuring-etherchannel.html Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three) A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address. B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet. C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other. D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other. E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

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The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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